Are wet dreams inherently sexual

    • Are wet dreams inherently sexual

      Hi
      I am wondering are wet dreams always considered sexual? I never remember any of my dreams and I just wonder if maybe they are sexual without me knowing or if its just puberty stuff

      Thank you
      - Kyle
      “You miss 100% of the shots you don't take.― Wayne Gretzky
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    • klm256 wrote:

      Hi
      I am wondering are wet dreams always considered sexual? I never remember any of my dreams and I just wonder if maybe they are sexual without me knowing or if its just puberty stuff
      I guess it depends on how you define it. You could reasonably argue that pumping out a load of cum is always sexual whether it happens at the end of masturbating, during sex or in a wet dream.

      But as for the dream content, I have not had any myself but some people report having them with a dream that is not really sexual. Other people have sexual dreams that don't result in ejaculating.

      I also wonder how many people remember because the usual thing with dreams is you only remember a dream if you wake up during it so those for whom starting to cum wakes them up will tend to remember and those that sleep through it will not.
    • I think it's made sexual by your brain. The having a wet dream itself probably isn't anything sexual. But your brain would associate the urge to with something sexual, so to stimulate it, your dream would probably involve something sexual to stimulate it. If that makes sense

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    • Pultost wrote:

      I suppose it's possible to blow your load in your sleep while dreaming something non-sexual if you've saved up some, but I think they're mostly triggered by sexual dreams, whether you remember them or not when you wake up. This is just me thinking out loud now.

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    • I don't think that there is much evidence that wet dreams are caused by erotic dreams during the night. There is more evidence that wet dreams are caused, in guys, with high levels of testosterone which caused the release of semen from their testicles. Another factor is having sexual thoughts that stimulate your brain during long periods of not having any sex activity. There is also no evidence that frequent masturbation will reduce the number of wet dreams.

      Wet dreams usually happen while we are sleeping. They shouldn't be seen as wrong because they are a normal part of development. It is also normal for some guys not to have them.

      Girls can have wet dreams too with about the same results as us guys, wet underwear and bed sheets!
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    • Jimboy123 wrote:

      corey_stratton wrote:

      its crazy, in all my wet dreams im tied up or tied to a bed, whats that mean?
      Are u naked? Is there someone that you like in the dream?
      I've not had wet dreams, but have had sexual ones and woke up hard
      no im wearing my school clothes but my shirts unbuttoned, i cant remember whose else is there but my wrists and ankles are tied to the bedposts, its weird, then i try to get loose and GUSH >>>>>>> . . . . . , it happens, and i wake up
      :gay:
    • D. Falcon_11 wrote:

      I don't think that there is much evidence that wet dreams are caused by erotic dreams during the night. There is more evidence that wet dreams are caused, in guys, with high levels of testosterone which caused the release of semen from their testicles.

      At the risk of being pedantic, the majority of our semen is not made in our testicles. They only make the sperm which only account for about 2% of the volume. Most of the liquid is made by the seminal vesicles and the prostate gland, both of which are up inside the body, not in the scrotum.

      But I had heard the theory about testosterone causing wet dreams before. Not that only guys with a higher level of testosterone get them, though clearly guys with a per-pubescent level of testosterone don't, but that they were prompted by night time spikes in testosterone.

      From what I've read, testosterone is not produced evenly throughout the day but in pulses, corresponding to pulses in luteinizing hormone and these are strongest at about 4am. If these pulses are responsible for causing wet dreams then we would expect guys to experience them in sometime shortly after 4am rather than shortly after falling asleep.

      Certainly the closest thing I had to wet dream happened at around that time, about 4.30am. Though looking at the clock wasn't the first thing on my mind, I did check it at the end. In my case I woke up hard and incredibly horny and immediately grabbed my dick and started stroking. I had only given it a few strokes and I had a really intense orgasm with lots of cum, just like I had been edging for at least a couple of hours, yet I had only stroked for a few seconds. So it seems the build-up must have happened while I was asleep and it just needed a little "push" to finish.

      As for the content of the dream, if some people can have them without an erotic dream then clearly the dream itself isn't triggering it. But given that plenty of people do have erotic dreams at the same time, maybe the testosterone spike prompts both the dream (in some people) and the ejaculation.

      It's a bit like how some people can notice that they only got acne since starting to masturbate and could, incorrectly, conclude that masturbation causes acne. In fact, testosterone causes the desire to masturbate and testosterone causes the increased oiliness of the skin that is a factor in acne.

      D. Falcon_11 wrote:

      Another factor is having sexual thoughts that stimulate your brain during long periods of not having any sex activity. There is also no evidence that frequent masturbation will reduce the number of wet dreams.

      And having more sexual thoughts is also another consequence of testosterone. From your comment above it seems you are suggesting that two-person sex may avert wet dreams in a way that masturbation does not. I am not sure there is any evidence for that. I can see why people might think it, because sexual opportunities generally increase as we get older and wet dreams also tend to decrease, but some of the things that have been written date back to before masturbation was acknowledged as a common and completely normal way of releasing sexual tension.

      It also seems at odds with what people report in that at least some people find their wet dreams stop when they masturbate more and re-start when they masturbate less or not at all.

      So we are left that the "everything is full, need to make some room" theory doesn't explain why some people can go for long periods without ejaculating at all, either deliberately while awake or spontaneously in a wet dream, while others can have a wet dream after having sex or masturbated the same night or even have two wet dreams in the same night.

      Meanwhile the testosterone spike theory doesn't explain why how often guys cum while awake seems to make a difference. After all, the testosterone cycle is presumably daily so why don't guys who have occasional wet dreams have them every night?

      So I think there is much we don't understand.

      D. Falcon_11 wrote:

      Wet dreams usually happen while we are sleeping. They shouldn't be seen as wrong because they are a normal part of development. It is also normal for some guys not to have them.

      Absolutely. Just because we don't understand the exact mechanism behind them, we know enough to know that they are both common and harmless yet not universal.

      As for being "wrong" that is usually a question of religion and I think even those that are down on deliberate ejaculation other than in accordance with their particular rules, acknowledge that wet dreams cannot be controlled.

      D. Falcon_11 wrote:

      Girls can have wet dreams too with about the same results as us guys, wet underwear and bed sheets!

      Again, I think this is more complex than it first appears. As a little diversion, there are things called homologues. These are organs that start out the same at some point in our development, then develop differently in each sex. In that respect the ovaries and testicles are homologues. They start out as undifferentiated gonads and, while developing in the womb, then differentiate into one or the other.

      Another pair of homologues are Bartholin's glands in girls and the bulbo-urethral glands in boys. The Bartholin's glands produce vaginal lube and the bulbo-urethral glands produce pre-cum. These are both triggered by arousal, though the Bartholin's glands are better developed so generally produce more than the amount of pre-cum a guy produces. But both of these are produced when aroused but don't need an orgasm.

      Then there are the prostate gland in guys and the Skene's gland in girls. The prostate is obviously well-developed in guys - it produces a good proportion of our cum. The Skene's gland in girls is usually not well developed, a bit like male nipples - there but doesn't do much. However there are some who believe it can be somewhat developed in at least some girls and produce a liquid very similar to a guy's prostatic fluid - a thin, white fluid - and that the action of this glands leads to female squirting aka. female ejaculation.

      So when you talk about female wet dreams it is ambiguous what you mean. The ability to have sexual dreams is taken as read but, if a girl wakes up with wet knickers, which mechanism was behind it, i.e. what is the wetness?
    • corey_stratton wrote:

      its crazy, in all my wet dreams im tied up or tied to a bed, whats that mean?
      I am not sure. I don't have that fantasy myself but I know that some people do find restraint sexy. But then again Freud would probably argue that the being tied up was about allowing yourself to enjoy something, because you are powerless to prevent it, that something has taught you you should not do.

      Lea13 wrote:

      weird thread...
      In general, or Corey's dream?